Hi, I'm new here. I'm a classical pianist who has studied Western music theory in general, but still quite new to jazz. Have quite a few questions about jazz theory, but I'll just start with one for now:
I'm confused about the use of modes. From what I've read, in Early Music, modes were used such that the first tone itself was the tonal centre, but that doesn't seem to be the case in jazz?
Am I correct to think that certain modes are the same diatonic notes of the same major key, only starting and ending at different tones? For example, D dorian is the same scale as a normal C major, only that it starts with D instead of C?
In that case, why remember modes at all? We could just remember the major scale alone, and just play the same scale starting on tones corresponding to the chord we're playing over? Or is it such that we could use modes with tones that are not diatonic to the key?
Thanks.
I'm confused about the use of modes. From what I've read, in Early Music, modes were used such that the first tone itself was the tonal centre, but that doesn't seem to be the case in jazz?
Am I correct to think that certain modes are the same diatonic notes of the same major key, only starting and ending at different tones? For example, D dorian is the same scale as a normal C major, only that it starts with D instead of C?
In that case, why remember modes at all? We could just remember the major scale alone, and just play the same scale starting on tones corresponding to the chord we're playing over? Or is it such that we could use modes with tones that are not diatonic to the key?
Thanks.
