Beginner theory Dominant 7th chords

[cappers]

I am trying to get my head around chords!

I think I understand Major 7th construction: major chord arpeggio 1,3,5 + 7, whereas the Dominant 7th has a flattened 7th so 1,3,5 + 7b.

CMaj7: C E G B ->** EDom7: CDom7 or more correctly C7: C E G Bb (Thanks @PiccoloPirate)
DMaj7: D F# A C# -> DDom7: D F# A C
EMaj7: E G# B D# -> EDom7 E G# B D
etc

My question is why is it named 'dominant'? I believe the 7th is a 'leading tone', so is the 'dominance' the fact that it needs to resolve down to sound correct? Also can it resolve up instead?

Thank you.

** edited to correct typo

 

[Pete Thomas]

My question is why is it named 'dominant'?

Someone with more knowledge of history may hopefully answer that

so is the 'dominance' the fact that it needs to resolve down to sound correct?

I think it may be due the the whole chord creating a tension to resolve, not just the 7th. For example the 3rd wants to resolve up a semitone. The so-called unstable tritone interval between 3rd and 7th also makes this chord want to resolve (to the tonic)

Also can it resolve up instead?

The 7th can move up but that would IMO not be called resolution as it goes against its natural tendency. Try it on a keyboard.

BTW you do not put “dom” in the chord symbol.

 

[cappers]

Someone with more knowledge of history may hopefully answer that

I think it may be due the the whole chord creating a tension to resolve, not just the 7th. For example the 3rd wants to resolve up a semitone. The so-called unstable tritone interval between 3rd and 7th also makes this chord want to resolve (to the tonic)

The 7th can move up but that would IMO not be called resolution as it goes against its natural tendency. Try it on a keyboard.

BTW you do not put “dom” in the chord symbol.

Thanks @Pete Thomas. I thought the naming might be a historical remnant, 'we've always done it this way', something to do with Gregorian chants perhaps?

Ah, B->F is the 'Devil's chord'..... 3 adjacent whole tones: FG GA AB , the only tritone in CMaj.
I see what you mean on the keyboard (I can't play but it is so useful to hear and see the notes!)

Yes, my error, it should just be M7 for Major chords e.g. C7, D7, E7 etc. (and m7 for minor chords e.g. c7, d7, F#m7 etc)

Thank you. Next up, minor7b5 and diminished/half diminished! Doing my head in 😳

 

[Pete Thomas]

Thank you. Next up, minor7b5 and diminished/half diminished! Doing my head in

Just take it slowly. But it really is important to use a keyboard to fully understand the voice leading.

 

[PiccoloPirate]

"CMaj7: C E G B -> EDom7: C E G Bb"

Find the typo. 😱

 

[cappers]

"CMaj7: C E G B -> EDom7: C E G Bb"

Find the typo. 😱

Ooops! Of course that should have been CMaj7: C E G B -> C7 (CDom7) = C E G Bb

 

[Pete Thomas]

When you learn them, as well as considering them with the same root as you have done:

Cmaj7 > C7

But also with the same tonic:

C7 > Fmaj7

 

[mizmar]

I thought the naming might be a historical remnant, 'we've always done it this way', something to do with Gregorian chants perhaps?

Side note: probably not.
Dominant Chord is a functional harmony thing and relatively modern.
The dominant note (5th) probably dates back to the use of tetrachord, pentachords etc. Where the upper chord often starts on the 5th...
Or something like that.

Best not to look to closely otherwise you'll have the impression that nothing is "true", though lots is useful and convenient sometimes

.

 

[cappers]

I found this Music Theory for Musicians and Normal People which sums it up I think:

The dominant and leading-tone triads both have a strong tendency to resolve to tonic - they have a “dominant function.”
The subdominant and supertonic chords both tend to resolve to the dominant - they both have a “subdominant function".

 

[BigMartin]

I've been studying music on and off (mostly off, tbh) for over 50 years and I've never understood what's supposed to be dominant about a "dominant" chord or note. I think of it as being like certain mathematical terms ("group", "ring", etc) that have been borrowed from everyday language and used to mean something that has nothing to do with their original meanings. Sometimes jargon is just jargon. But as long as everyone uses it to mean the same thing, it's pretty useful.

 

[Pete Thomas]

Think of chords like a journey.

• Chord I = you at home having a cup of tea but get bored.
• Chord IV = you go for a little walk to the park
• Chord V = you remember you left the front door wide open so you need to rush back and resolve that issue.

 

[mizmar]

I've never understood what's supposed to be dominant about a "dominant" chord or note

Like I said

Best not to look to closely otherwise you'll have the impression that nothing is "true", though lots is useful and convenient sometimes

 

[PiccoloPirate]

A start to the research:
"The term "dominant" in music theory refers to the fifth note of a scale, and the chord built upon it. It's derived from the Latin word "dominari," meaning "to rule" or "to dominate," reflecting the dominant chord's strong pull toward the tonic, or root chord. The earliest use of the term in music is from the 1500s, attributed to Giles Du Wes, a royal tutor."

 

[Pete Effamy]

Next up, minor7b5 and diminished/half diminished!

The minor 7b5 (m7b5) is what half-diminished is. I have a feeling that it’s not “classical “ or “traditional “ terminology but “jazz” terminology (?).

As Pete says (both of us) play on a keyboard as 1) you’ll hear it and 2) it’s graphic with the voice-leading of the b7 down into a diminished 7th.

Note how the diminished chord is symmetrical and is made up of minor 3rd intervals. It’s a powerful chord as it has two tritone intervals in it. This is why it can function as a (secondary) dominant chord - acting as the dominant 7th with either of the two tritones .

 

[mizmar]

Not giving the Latin or Greek origin of "root" and "tonic" certainly reduces the credibility of that. 😅

People really do pump up their text unnecessarily like

they have a “dominant function.”

Why not just say "dominant function refers to..."?

 

[BigMartin]

A start to the research:
"The term "dominant" in music theory refers to the fifth note of a scale, and the chord built upon it. It's derived from the Latin word "dominari," meaning "to rule" or "to dominate," reflecting the dominant chord's strong pull toward the tonic, or root chord. The earliest use of the term in music is from the 1500s, attributed to Giles Du Wes, a royal tutor."

Thanks for the historical reference, but I still don't get how pulling toward the tonic chord means "dominating" it. To me, it feels more like a signpost (and sometimes a misleading one, at that).

 

[LostCircuits]

If you have a keyboard, it is a bit easier to understand. @PiccoloPirate already posted the gist of it.

If you arpeggiate the Dominant 7, it lends itself to resolve to either IV or a flat VI. Like in the C-major scale, you go C7 to F or Bb.

There is a psychophysical reason behind the description as dominant, meaning that if you play the chord (depending on the instrument) and ask the audience which note they heard, they will often identify V instead of I, IOW, you play a C major chord and people "hear" the G rather than the C because the highest note in a triad will dominate the others.

Some of it relates to the non-linear response of the ear to frequencies, meaning sensitivity increases with higher frequency up to ~ 2000 Hz before dropping off, so at identical volume of all notes, the higher notes will be heard louder and therefore be the dominant factor.

 

[cappers]

A start to the research:
"The term "dominant" in music theory refers to the fifth note of a scale, and the chord built upon it. It's derived from the Latin word "dominari," meaning "to rule" or "to dominate," reflecting the dominant chord's strong pull toward the tonic, or root chord. The earliest use of the term in music is from the 1500s, attributed to Giles Du Wes, a royal tutor."

Isn't that what the original quote said: "The dominant and leading-tone triads both have a strong tendency to resolve to tonic - they have a “dominant function.”

Anything further is purely academic now as I understand both the concept and the possible aetiology of the word, thank you.

 

[Pete Effamy]

Isn't that what the original quote said: "The dominant and leading-tone triads both have a strong tendency to resolve to tonic - they have a “dominant function.”

Anything further is purely academic now as I understand both the concept and the possible aetiology of the word, thank you.

I wouldn’t get bogged down in why the terms are so-called. Whilst their original “function “ hasn’t changed and provide a great basis for music theory the musical rules of 500 years ago have been eroded.

 

[wakyct]

Anything further is purely academic now as I understand both the concept and the possible aetiology of the word, thank you.

I think you have the right of it, IMO "dominant" is just jargon and trying to shoehorn its common definition into the V resolving to the I is going to get loosey-goosey.

That said I agree with @LostCircuits take that the 5 of the chord tends to stand out, at least for my ears. But then what about inversions? 😀